posted by
palfrey at 01:27am on 10/01/2005
I have a question for anyone more linguistically minded that's been kicking around my head for a while. This is regards Sapir-Whorf, and got triggered by the conversation with a linguist a couple of weeks ago (hey, she was cute...). Anyways, here's the question: I'm confused about what Sapir-Whorf is meant to be. The version I was arguing about on Boxing Day involved the idea that if you don't have a word for something, then you can't express the concept. Where as the Wikipedia entry and my own random memories seems to think that it's more about your language shaping how you categorise the world, and influencing your thought patterns in that way instead.
So, anyone here know any better? Anyone actually read any of the darn papers on this sort of thing?
So, anyone here know any better? Anyone actually read any of the darn papers on this sort of thing?
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Out of interest, which side of the arguement were you on?
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OTOH, if you run with the theoretical scenario a bit, they're probably sort of making up a pidgin/signed language of their own in order to be able to communicate, and it may be possible to add concepts to that pidgin language that would have been entirely unknown to one of the two in their original tongue, by going the long route around and explaining the concept, until the unknowing person properly groks (I love that word...) the concept.
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I wasn't actually drunk, but I'd still count the whole thing under random drunken conversations, which scarily enough with me often turn out to be about something sensible in the morning.
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Originally, it was intended as hardass linguistic determinism. For example, if you knew the word nigger, you were a racist whether you wanted to be or not.
That turned out to be politically undesirable and scintifically incorrect, so it was revised to merely linguistic relativity, where your language influences the way you view the world. For example, many eastern cultures talk about time as a circle, while we in the west talk about it as a line.